118 People and Environment Questions with Answers



This post consists more than 100 questions from People and Environment from previous years UGC NET papers. this will help you to understand the pattern of questions comes under this section. Generally 5 out 50 questions comes from People and Environment. New syllabus issued by the NTA is given in this post. this post also highlight the questions from each years. try to solve the questions.

Best of luck for your NTA UGC NET  preparation.

People , Development and Environment

Questions from Paper1 2016 to 2006 old papers.

( 5 Questions out of 50)
 Development and environment: Millennium development and Sustainable
development goals.
 Human and environment interaction: Anthropogenic activities and their
impacts on environment.
 Environmental issues: Local, Regional and Global; Air pollution, Water
pollution, Soil pollution, Noise pollution, Waste (solid, liquid, biomedical,
hazardous, electronic), Climate change and its Socio-Economic and
Political dimensions.
 Impacts of pollutants on human health.
 Natural and energy resources: Solar, Wind, Soil, Hydro, Geothermal,
Biomass, Nuclear and Forests.
 Natural hazards and disasters: Mitigation strategies.
 Environmental Protection Act (1986), National Action Plan on Climate
Change, International agreements/efforts -Montreal Protocol, Rio Summit,
Convention on Biodiversity, Kyoto Protocol, Paris Agreement, International
Solar Alliance.

JULY 2016

  1.  Identify the air pollutant in urban areas which irritates eyes and also respiratory tract of human beings.
    (1)    Particulate matter    (2)    Oxides of nitrogen    3)    Surface ozone    (4)    Carbon monoxide
  2.  Which of the following is the largest source of water pollution in major rivers of India?
    1)    Untreated sewage
    (2)    Agriculture run-off
    (3)    Unregulated small scale industries
    (4)    Religious practices
  3.  Sustainable development goals have specific targets to be achieved by
    (1)    2022    2)    2030 (3)    2040    (4)    2050
  4.  Indian government’s target of producing power from biomass by the year 2022, is
    (1)    50 MW    (2)    25 MW     (3)    15MW    (4)    10MW
    Note: Above options are wrong. correct answer is 10GW
  5.  Assertion (A):   Conserving our soil resources is critical to human survival.
    Reason (R)     :   Soil is home to many micro-organisms and contains minerals.
    Choose the correct code:
    (1)    Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    2)    Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    (3)    (A) is true and (R) is false.
    (4)    (A) is false and (R) is true.
  6.  World Meteorological Organisation’s (WMO) objective has been to reduce the number of deaths due to hydrometeorological disasters over the decade 2010-2019 by (with reference to the decade 1994-2003)
    (1)    25%    2)    50%  (3)    75%    (4)    80%


  1. Inside rural homes, the source/sources of Nitrogen Oxide Pollution may be:
    (a) Unvented gas stoves
    (b) Wood stoves
    (c) Kerosene heaters
    Choose the correct code :
    (1) (a) and (b) only               (2) (b) and (c) only
    (3) (b) only                            4) (a), (b) and (c)
  2. Which ot the following pollutants can cause cancer in humans?
    1) Pesticides   (2) Mercury          (3) Lead          (4) Ozone
  3. Assertion (A) : People population control measures do no! necessarily help in checking environmental degradation.
    Reason (R) : The relationship between population growth and environmental degradation is rather complex.
    Choose the correct answer from the following :
    1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
    (4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
  4. Which of the following phenomena is not a natural hazard?
    (1) Wildfire            (2) Lightning
    (3) Landslide        4) Chemical contamination
  5. As part of National Climate Change Policy, Indian government is planning to raise the installed capacity of renewable energy by the year 2030 to :
    (1) 175 GW         (2) 200 GW         (3) 250 GW         4) 350 GW
  6. At present, in terms of per capita energy consumption (kWh/year), identify the correct sequence.
    (1) Brazil > Russia > China > India
    (2) Russia > China > India > Brazil
    3) Russia > China > Brazil > India
    (4) China > Russia > Brazil > India

JUNE 2015

  1. In which of the countries per capita use of water is maximum?
    (1) USA 2) European Union
    (3) China (4) India
  2. India’s contribution to total global carbon dioxide emissions is about:
    (1) -3% 2) -6% (3) -10% (4) -15%
  3. Two earthquakes A and B happen to be of magnitude 5 and 6 respectively on Richter Scale. The ratio of the energies released EB/EA will be approximately:
    (1) ~8 (2) -16 3) -32 (4) -64
  4. Which of the following combinations represent renewable natural resources?
    (1) Fertile soil, fresh water and natural gas
    (2) Clean air, phosphates and biological diversity
    3) Fishes, fertile soil and fresh water
    (4) Oil, forests and tides
  5. In the recently launched Air Quality Index in India, which of the following pollutants is not included ?
    (1) Carbon monoxide (2) Fine particulate matter
    (3) Ozone 4) Chlorofluorocarbons
  6. The factors which are most important in determining the impact of anthropogenic activities on environment are:
    (1) Population, affluence per person, land available per person
    2) Population, affluence per person and the technology used for exploiting resources
    (3) Atmospheric conditions, population and forest cover
    (4) Population, forest cover and land available per person


  1. In terms of total CO, emissions from a country, identify the correct sequence
    (A)    U.S.A. > China > India > Russia
    (B)    China > U.S.A. > India > Russia
    (C)    China > U.S.A. > Russia > India
    (D)    U.S.A. > China > Russia > India
  2. Match List – I and List – II and identify the correct code :
    List – I                            List-II
    a.     World Health Day         i.    16th September
    b.    World Population Day    ii.   1st   December
    c.     World Ozone Day         iii.  1st  July
    d.     World AIDS Day          iv.  7th April
    a    b       c       d
    (A)    i    ii       iii       iv
    B)    iv    iii        i        ii        
    (C)    ii    iii       iv        i
    (D)   iii    iv       ii        i
  3. Which  of the  anthropogenic  activity  accounts  for  more than  ~2/3rd  of global  water consumption ?
    A)    Agriculture
    (B)    Hydropower generation
    (C)    Industry
    (D)    Domestic and Municipal usage
  4. Oneof the anthropogenic sources of gaseous pollutants chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) in air is
    (A)    Cement industry
    (B)    Fertiliser industry
    C)    Foam industry
    (D)    Pesticide industry

JUNE 2014

  1. ‘Lahar’ is a natural disaster involving
    A) eruption of large amount of material
    (B) strong winds
    (C) strong water waves
    (D) strong winds and water waves
  2. The population of India is about 1.2 billion. Take the average consumption of energy per person per year in India as 30 Mega Joules. If this consumption is met by carbon based fuels and the rate of carbon emissions per kilojoule is 15 x 106 kgs, the total carbon emissions per year from India will be
    (A) 54 million metric tons
    B)540 million metric tons
    (C) 5400 million metric tons
    (D) 2400 million metric tons
  3. Which of the following cities has been worst affected by urban smog in recent times?
    (A) Paris
    (B) London
    (C) Los Angeles
    D) Beijing
  4. The primary source of organic pollution in fresh water bodies is
    (A) run-off urban areas
    (B) run-off from agricultural forms
    C)sewage effluents
    (D) industrial effluents
  5. Which one of the following green house gases has the shortest residence time in the atmosphere?
    (A) Chlorofluorocarbon
    (B) Carbon dioxide
    C) Methane
    (D) Nitrous oxide
  6. In order to avoid catastrophic consequences of climate change, there is general agreement among the countries of the world to limit the rise in average surface temperature of earth compared to that of per-industrial times by
    A) 1.5°C to 2°C
    (B) 2.0 °C to 3.5 °C
    (C) 0.5°C to l0°C
    (D) 0.25 °C to 0.5 °C
  7. The National Disaster Management Authority functions under the Union Ministry of
    (A) Environment
    (B) Water Resources
    C) Home Affairs
    (D) Defense
  8. Match List – I and List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
    List -1                      List – II
    a. Flood                     1. Lack of rainfall of sufficient duration
    b. Drought                   2. Tremors produced by the passage of vibratory waves through the rocks of the
    c. Earthquake             3. Avent through which molted substances come out
    d. Volcano                   4. Excess rain and uneven distribution of water
    a b c d
    A)4 1 2 3
    (B) 2 3 4 1
    (C) 3 4 2 1
    (D) 4 3 1 2


  1. Arrange the following books in chronological order in which they appeared. Use the code given below:
    (i) Limits to Growth
    (ii) Silent Spring
    (iii) Our Common Future
    (iv) Resourceful Earth
    Codes :
    (A) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
    (B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
    C) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
    (D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
  2. Which one of the following continents is at a greater risk of desertification?
    A) Africa
    (B) Asia
    (C) South America
    (D) North America
  3. “Women are closer to nature than men.” What kind of perspective is this?
    (A) Realist   B) Essentialist (C) Feminist     (D) Deep ecology
  4. Which one of the following is not a matter a global concern in the removal of tropical forests?
    A) Their ability to absorb the chemicals that contribute to depletion of ozone layer
    (B) Their role in maintaining the oxygen and carbon balance of the earth.
    (C) Their ability to regulate surface and air temperatures, moisture content and reflectivity.
    (D) Their contribution to the biological diversity of the planet.
  5. The most comprehensive approach to address the problems of man-environment interaction is one of the following :
    (A) Natural Resource Conservation Approach
    (B) Urban-industrial Growth Oriented Approach
    (C) Rural-agricultural Growth Oriented Approach
    D) Watershed Development Approach
  6. The major source of the pollutant gas,carbon mono-oxide (CO), in urban areas is
    (A) Thermal power sector
    B) Transport sector
    (C) Industrial sector
    (D) Domestic sector
  7. In a fuel cell driven vehicle, the energy is obtained from the combustion of
    (A) Methane   B) Hydrogen
    (C) LPG            (D) CNG

JUNE 2013

  1. The phrase ‘tragedy of commons” is in the context of
    (A) tragic event related to damage caused by release’ of poisonous gases.
    (B) tragic conditions of poor people.
    C) degradation of renewable free access resources
    (D) climate change
  2. ‘Kyoto Protocol is related to
    (A) Ozone depletion’
    (B) Hazardous waste
    C) Climate change
    (D) Nuclear-energy
  3. Which of the following is a source of emissions leading to the eventual formation of surface ozone as a pollutant?
    A) Transport sector
    (B) Refrigeration and Airconditioning
    (C) Wetlands
    (D) Fertilizers
  4. The smog in cities in India mainly consists of
    (A) Oxides Of sulphur
    B) Oxides of nitrogen and unburnt hydrocarbons
    (C) Carbon monoxide and SPM
    (D) Oxides of sulphur and ozone
  5. Which of the following types of natural hazards have the highest potential to cause damage to humans?
    (A) Earth quakes
    (B) Forest fires
    (C) Volcanic eruptions
    D) Droughts and Floods
  6. The percentage share of renewable energy sources in the power production in India
    is around
    (A) 2 – 3 % (B) 22-25% C) l0-12% (D) < 1%


  1. Which of the following is a source of methane?
    A) Wetlands
    (B) Foam Industry
    (C) Thermal Power Plants
    (D) Cernent Industry
  2. “Minamata disaster” in Japan was caused by pollution due to
    (A) Lead           B) Mercury
    (C) Cadmium     (D) Zinc
  3. Biomagnification means increase in the
    A) concentration of pollutants in living organisms
    (B) number of species
    (C) size of living organisms
    (D) biomass
  4. Nagoya Protocol is related to
    (A) Climate change
    (B) Ozone depletion
    (C) Hazardous waste
    D) Biodiversity
  5. The second most important source after fossil fuels. contributing to India’s energy needs is
    (A) Solar energy
    (B) Nuclear energy
    C) Hydropower
    (D) Wind energy
  6. In case of earthquakes, an increase of magnitude 1 on Richter Scale implies
    A) a ten-fold increase in the amplitude of seismic waves.
    (B) a ten-fold increase in the energy of the seismic waves.
    (C) two-fold increase in the amplitude of seismic waves.
    (D) two-fold increase in the energy of seismic waves.

JUNE 2012

  1. Irritation in eyes is caused by the pollutant
    (A) Sulphur di-oxide
    (B) Ozone
    C) PAN
    (D) Nitrous oxide
  2. Which is the source of chlorofluorocarbons?
    (A) Thermal power plants
    (B) Automobiles
    C) Refrigeration and Airconditioning
    (D) Fertilizers
  3. Which of the following is not a renewable natural resource?
    (A) Clean air (B) Fertile soil (C) Fresh water D) Salt
  4. Which of the following parameters is not used as a pollution indicator in water?
    (A) Total dissolved solids
    (B) Coliform count
    (C) Dissolved oxygen
    D) Density
  5. S and P waves are associated with
    (A) floods
    (B) wind energy
    C) earthquakes
    (D) tidal energy
  6. Match Lists I and II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
    List – I                                                        List – II
    (i) Ozone hole                                            (a) Tsunami
    (ii) Greenhouse effect                               (b) UV radiations
    (iii) Natural hazards                                  (c) Methane
    (iv) Sustainable development                  (d) Eco-centrism
    Codes :
    (i)  (ii) (iii) (iv)
    A) (b) (c) (a) (d)
    (B) (c) (b) (a) (d)
    (C) (d) (c) (a) (b)
    (D) (d) (b) (c) (a)


  1. Which of the following pollutants affects the respiratory tract in humans ?
    (A) Carbon monoxide
    (B) Nitric oxide
    C) Sulphur di-oxide
    (D) Aerosols
  2. Which of the following pollutants is not emitted from the transport sector ?
    (A) Oxides of nitrogen
    B) Chlorofluorocarbons
    (C) Carbon monoxide
    (D) Poly aromatic hydrocarbons
  3. Which of the following sources of energy has the maximum potential in India ?
    (A) Solar energy
    B) Wind energy
    (C) Ocean thermal energy
    (D) Tidal energy
  4. Which of the following is not a source of pollution in soil ?
    (A) Transport sector
    (B) Agriculture sector
    (C) Thermal power plants
    D) Hydropower plants
  5. Which of the following is not a natural hazard ?
    (A) Earthquake
    (B) Tsunami
    (C) Flash floods
    D) Nuclear accident
  6. Ecological footprint represents
    (A) area of productive land and water to meet the resources requirement
    (B) energy consumption
    (C) CO2 emissions per person
    (D) forest cover

JUNE 2011

  1. The Ganga Action Plan was initiated during the year
    A) 1986(B) 1988 (C) 1990 (D) 1992
  2. Identify the correct sequence of energy sources in order of their share in the power sector in India:
    (A) Thermal > nuclear > hydro > wind
    B) Thermal > hydro > nuclear > wind
    (C) Hydro > nuclear > thermal > wind
    (D) Nuclear > hydro > wind > thermal
  3. Chromium as a contaminant in drinking water in excess of permissible levels, causes
    (A) Skeletal damage
    (B) Gastrointestinal problem
    (C) Dermal and nervous problems
    D) Liver/Kidney problems
  4. The main precursors of winter smog are
    (A) N2O and hydrocarbons
    (B) NOx and hydrocarbons
    C) SO2 and hydrocarbons
    (D) SO2 and ozone
  5. Flash floods are caused when
    A) the atmosphere is convectively unstable and there is considerable vertical windshear
    (B) the atmosphere is stable
    (C) the atmosphere is convectively unstable with no vertical windshear
    (D) winds are catabatic
  6. In mega cities of India, the dominant source of air pollution is
    A) transport sector(B) thermal power (C) municipal waste (D) commercial sector


  1. Which of the following is not covered in 8 missions under the Climate Action Plan of Government of India ?
    (A) Solar power (B) Waste to energy conversion (C) Afforestation D) Nuclear energy
  2. The concentration of Total Dissolved Solids (TDS) in drinking water should not exceed
    A) 500 mg/L(B) 400 mg/L (C) 300 mg/L (D) 200 mg/L
  3. ‘Chipko’ movement was first started by
    (A) Arundhati Roy (B) Medha Patkar (C) Ila Bhatt D) Sunderlal Bahuguna
  4. The constituents of photochemical smog responsible for eye irritation are
    (A) SO2 and O3 (B) SO2 and NO2 C) HCHO and PAN(D) SO2 and SPM
  5. Assertion (A) : Some carbonaceous aerosols may be carcinogenic.
    Reason (R) : They may contain polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs).
    A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
    (D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
  6. Volcanic eruptions affect
    (A) atmosphere and hydrosphere
    (B) hydrosphere and biosphere
    (C) lithosphere, biosphere and atmosphere
    D) lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere

JUNE 2010

  1. Which type of natural hazards cause maximum damage to property and lives?
    (A) Hydrological
    (B) Hydro-meteorological
    C) Geological
    (D) Geo-chemical
  2. Dioxins are produced from
    (A) Wastelands
    (B) Power plants
    (C) Sugar factories
    D) Combustion of plastics
  3. The slogan “A tree for each child” was coined for
    A) Social forestry programme
    (B) Clean Air programme
    (C) Soil conservation programme
    (D) Environmental protection programme
  4. The main constituents of biogas are
    A) Methane and Carbon di-oxide
    (B) Methane and Nitric oxide
    (C) Methane, Hydrogen and Nitric oxide
    (D) Methane and Sulphur di-oxide
  5. Assertion (A) : In the world as a whole, the environment has degraded during past several decades.
    Reason (R) : The population of the world has been growing significantly.
    (A) (A) is correct, (R) is correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    B) (A) is correct, (R) is correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
    (D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
  6. Climate change has implications for
    1. soil moisture  2. forest fires  3. biodiversity 4. ground water
    Identify the correct combination according to the code :
    Codes :
    (A) 1 and 3
    (B) 1, 2 and 3
    (C) 1, 3 and 4
    D) 1, 2, 3 and 4


  1. The great Indian Bustard bird is found in
    A)   Thar Desert of Rajasthan  (B) Coastal regions of India
    (C)   Malabar Coast    (D) Delta regions
  2. The Sagarmanthan National Park has been established to preserve the eco-system of which mountain peak ?
    (A)   Kanchenjunga   B) Mount Everest
    (C)   Annapurna    (D) Dhaulavira
  3.    Maximum soot is released from
    (A)   Petrol vehicles     (B)   CNG vehicles
    (C)   Diesel vehicles     D)   Thermal Power Plants
  4. Surface Ozone is produced from
    A)   Transport sector (B) Cement plants
    (C)   Textile industry    (D)   Chemical industry
  5. Which one of the following non-conventional energy sources can be exploited most economically?
    A)    Solar
    (B)    Wind
    (C)    Geo-thermal
    (D)    Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC)
  6. The most recurring natural hazard in India is
    (A)   Earthquakes   (B)   Floods
    (C)   Landslides    (D)   Volcanoes

JUNE 2009

  1. Environmental impact assessment is an objective analysis of the probable changes in :
    (A) physical characteristics of the environment
    (B) biophysical characteristics of the environment
    (C) socio-economic characteristics of the environment
    D) all the above
  2. Bog is a wetland that receives water from:
    (A) nearby water bodies (B) melting
    C) rain fall only(D) sea only
  3. Which of the following region is in the very high risk zone of earthquakes?
    (A) Central Indian Highland (B) Coastal region
    C) Himalayan region (D) Indian desert
  4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
    List-I List-II
    (Institutes) (Cities)
    (a) Central Arid Zone Institute (i) Kolkata
    (b) Space Application Centre (ii) New Delhi
    (c) Indian Institute of Public Administration (iii) Ahmedabad
    (d) Headquarters of Indian Science Congress (iv) Jodhpur
    Codes :
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
    (B) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
    (C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
    (D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
  5. Indian coastal areas experienced Tsunami disaster in the year:
    (A) 2005 B) 2004(C) 2006 (D) 2007


  1. Which of the following pairs regarding typical composition of hospital wastes is incorrect?
    A)    Plastic-   9-12%  (B)     Metals-   1-2%
    (C)    Ceramic-   8-10%    (D)    Biodegradable-   35-40%
  2. Fresh water achieves its greatest density at :
    (A)    -4° C    (B)     0 C   C)    4° C     (D)     -2.5° C
  3. Which one of the following is not associated with earthquakes?
    (A)    Focus    (B)     Epicenter
    (C)    Seismograph   D)    Swells
  4. The tallest trees in the world are found in the region:
    (A)    Equatorial region   B)     Temperate region
    (C)    Monsoon region    (D)    Mediterranean region
  5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
    List-I                                               List – II
    (National Parks)                              (States)
    (a)     Periyar                                           (i)    Orissa
    (b)     Nandan Kanan                              (ii)    Kerala
    (c)     Corbett National Park                   (iii)    Rajasthan
    (d)     Sariska Tiger Reserve                   (iv)    Uttarakhand
    Codes :
    (a)     (b)     (c)     (d)
    A)    (ii)     (i)      (iv)    (iii)
    (B)    (i)      (ii)     (iv)    (iii)
    (C)    (iii)    (ii)     (i)      (iv)
    (D)    (i)      (ii)     (iii)    (iv)

JUNE 2008

  1. Human ear is most sensitive to noise in which of the following ranges:
    A)    l-2KHz   (B)     100-500 Hz
    (C)    10-12 KHz    (D)    13-16 KHz
    Note: 2 – 5 khz is most sensitive
  2. Which one of the following units is used to measure intensity of noise?
    A)    decible (B)     Hz    (C)    Phon    (D)    Watts/mP
  3. If the population growth follows a logistic curve, the maximum sustainable yield :
    A)    is equal to half the carrying capacity.
    (B)    is equal to the carrying capacity.
    (C)    depends on growth rates.
    (D)    depends on the initial population.
  4. Chemical weathering of rocks is largely dependent upon:
    (A)    high temperature    (B)     strong wind action
    C)    heavy rainfall (D)    glaciation
  5. Structure of earth’s system consists of the following:
    Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer.
    List-I (Zone)            List-II (Chemical Character)
    (a)     Atmosphere        (i)    Inert gases
    (b)     Biosphere           (ii)    Salt, fresh water, snow and ice
    (c)     Hydrosphere      (iii)    Organic substances, skeleton matter
    (d)     Lithosphere        (iv)    Light silicates
    Codes :
    (a)     (b)     (c)    (d)
    (A)    (ii)     (iii)    (i)    (iv)
    B)    (i)      (iii)    (ii)    (iv)
    (c)    (ii)      (i)      (iii)   (iv)
    (D)    (iii)    (i)      (ii)    (iv)


  1. Deforestation during the recent decades has led to:
    (A)    Soil erosion    (B)     Landslides
    (C)    Loss of bio-diversity   D)    All the above
  2. Which one of the following natural hazards is responsible for causing highest human disaster ?
    (A)    Earthquakes           (B) Snow-storms
    (C)    Volcanic eruptions D) Tsunami
  3. Which one of the following is appropriate for natural hazard mitigation ?
    (A)    International AID   B)     Timely Warning System
    (C)    Rehabilitation    (D)    Community Participation
  4.     Slums in metro-city are the result of :
    A)    Rural to urban migration  (B)     Poverty of the city-scape
    (C)    Lack of urban infrastructure    (D)    Urban-governance
  5.     The great Indian Bustard bird is found in :
    (A)    Thar Desert of India
    (B)    Coastal regions of India
    (C)    Temperate Forests in the Himalaya
    D)    Tarai zones of the Himalayan Foot

JUNE 2007

  1. Tsunami occurs due to:
    (A)    Mild earthquakes and landslides in the oceans
    B)    Strong earthquakes and landslides in the oceans
    (C)    Strong earthquakes and landslides in mountains
    (D)    Strong earthquakes and landslides in deserts
  2.    Which of the natural hazards have big effect on Indian people each year?
    (A)    Cyclones       B)     Floods
    (C)    Earthquakes    (D)    Landslides
  3.     Comparative Environment Impact Assessment study is to be conducted for:
    A)    the whole year (B)     three seasons excluding monsoon
    (C)    any three seasons    (D)    the worst season
  4.    Sea level rise results primarily due to:
    (A)    Heavy rainfall              B)     Melting of glaciers
    (C)    Submarine volcanism    (D)    Seafloor spreading
  5.    The plume rise in a coal based power plant depends on:
    (i)      Buoyancy
    (ii)     Atmospheric stability
    (iii)    Momentum of exhaust gases
    Identify the correct code :
    (A)    (i) and (ii) only   B)     (ii) and (iii) only
    (C)    (i) and (iii) only    (D)    (i), (ii) and (iii)


  1. The most significant impact of volcanic eruption has been felt in the form of:
    A) change in weather
    (B) sinking of islands
    (C) loss of vegetation
    (D) extinction of animals
  2. With absorption and decomposition of CO2 in ocean water beyond desired level, there will be:
    (A) decrease in temperature
    (B) increase in salinity
    C) growth of phytoplankton
    (D) rise in sea level
  3. Arrange column II in proper sequence so as to match it with column I and choose the correct
    answer from the code given below :
    Column I                              Column II
    Water Quality                       pH Value
    (a) Neutral                                (i) 5
    (b) Moderately acidic             (ii) 7
    (c) Alkaline                              (iii) 4
    (d) Injurious                            (iv) 8
    Code :
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
    (B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
    (C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
    (D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
  4. The maximum emission of pollutants from fuel sources in India is caused by:
    A) Coal
    (B) Firewood
    (C) Refuse burning
    (D) Vegetable waste product
  5. The urbanisation process accounts for the wind in the urban centres during nights to remain:
    A) faster than that in rural areas
    (B) slower than that in rural areas
    (C) the same as that in rural areas
    (D) cooler than that in rural areas

JUNE 2006

  1. Which is the smallest North-east State in India?
    A) Tripura   (B) Meghalaya     (C) Mizoram     (D) Manipur
  2. Tamilnadu coastal belt has drinking water shortage due to:
    (A) high evaporation
    (B) sea water flooding due to tsunami
    (C) over exploitation of ground water by tube wells
    D) seepage of sea water
  3. While all rivers of Peninsular India flow into the Bay of Bengal, Narmada and Tapti flow into the Arabian Sea because these two rivers:
    A) Follow the slope of these rift valleys
    (B) The general slope of the Indian peninsula is from east to west
    (C) The Indian peninsula north of the Satpura ranges, is tilted towards the west
    (D) The Indian peninsula south of the satpura ranges is tilted towards east
  4. Soils in the Mahanadi delta are less fertile than those in the Godavari delta because of:
    A) erosion of top soils by annual floods
    (B) inundation of land by sea water
    (C) traditional agriculture practices
    (D) the derivation of alluvial soil from red-soil hinterland



Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *

This site uses Akismet to reduce spam. Learn how your comment data is processed.